Civil Engineering MCQ
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All Type Test Preparation Website 1: Stamflay.com
| Civil Engineering Mcqs: |
| Which of the following is a mineral ? |
| A. basalt B. granite C. quartz D. syenite |
| Gypsum is a_________________? |
| A. mechanically formed sedimentary rock B. igneous rock C. chemically precipitated sedimentary rock D. metamorphic rock |
| Which of the following is a rock ? |
| A. quartz B. mica C. gypsum D. none of the above |
| A heavy stone is suitable for________________? |
| A. arches B. rubble masonry C. roads D. retaining walls |
| Slate is formed by metamorphic action on______________? |
| A. shale B. lime stone C. sand stone D. granite |
| Which of the following has more fire resisting characteristics ? |
| A. marble B. lime stone C. compact sand stone D. granite |
| Quality control is aimed at__________? |
| A. Maintaining the desired quality B. Exceeding the desired quality C. Continuously improving the quality D. Following the quality |
| The predominant constituent which is responsible for strength in granite is_____________? |
| A. quartz B. feldspar C. mica D. none of the above |
| Jumper is a tool used for_______________? |
| A. testing of stones B. quarrying of stones C. dressing of stones D. none of the above |
| A good building stone should not absorb water more than_____________? |
| A. 5% B. 10% C. 15% D. 20% |
| Sandstone is a ________________? |
| i. sedimentary rock ii. aqueous rock iii. silicious rock |
| The correct answer is: A. only (i) B. both (i) and (ii) C. both (i) and (iii) D. all (i), (ii) and (iii) |
| Which of these is correct with respect to a product developed or a service performed? |
| A. Bad quality is acceptable, but bad grade is not. B. Bad grade is acceptable, but bad quality is not. C. Neither bad grade nor quality is acceptable. D. Grade and quality is the same thing. |
| What characteristic best describes the cost baseline? |
| A. Total budget for the project B. Time phased budget for the project C. Total budget for the project including the contingency budget D. Total budget for the project including the contingency budget and the management reserve |
| Engineering ethics refers to_______________? |
| A. The rules and standards given by an institution for Engineering practice B. The rules and regulation relating to obligations and rights of others C. The professional regulation D. The rules and standards which govern the conduct of Engineers as professional Engineers |
| As per PEC Code of Conduct a member shall report unethical professional practices of an engineer or a member with substantiating data to____________? |
| A. Court of Law B. Concerned Department C. Pakistan Engineering Council D. Law enforcing Agency |
| How many commandments are given in PEC Code of Ethics? |
| A. 20 B. 30 C. 10 D. 05 |
| While designing a project by an engineer, ______________should be taken into account to protect cultural heritage? |
| A. All possible alternates B. No protection C. Minimum protection D. No care |
| Which of the following sedimentary rocks changes into quartzite by metamorphic action ? |
| A. sand stone B. lime stone C. shale D. gypsum |
| Quartitze is a_____________? |
| A. silicious rock B. argillaceous rock C. calcareous rock D. aqueous rock |
| The stone suitable for rubble masonry should be____________? |
| A. hard B. tough C. heavy D. light |
| Which of the following metamorphic rocks has the most weather resisting characteristics ? |
| A. marble B. quartzite C. slate D. lime stone |
| The important test to be conducted on a stone used in docks and harbors is________________? |
| A. hardness test B. work ability test C. weight test D. toughness test |
| Granite is not suitable for ordinary building purpose because_______________? |
| A. it can not be polished B. it is not a fire proof material C. it is costly D. it has less crushing strength |
| The preparation of surface of stone to obtain plain edges or to obtain stones of required size and shape is known as______________? |
| A. quarrying of stones B. blasting of stones C. seasoning of stones D. dressing of stones |
| Based on the following rocks and minerals, select the correct statement, quartz, shale, basalt, granite, marble, gypsum, mica______________? |
| A. basalt and marble are the only metamorphic rocks B. there is no sedimentary rock C. granite is the only igneous rock D. quartz and mica are minerals |
| Which of the following stone is best suited for construction of piers and abutments of a railway bridge ? |
| A. granite B. sand stone C. lime stone D. quartzite |
| Specific gravity for most of the building stones lies between_____________? |
| A. 1.5 to 2.0 B. 2.0 to 2.5 C. 2.5 to 3.0 D. 3.0 to 3.5 |
| Cross cut saw is used for_______________? |
| A. cutting soft stones B. cutting hard stones C. cutting large blocks of stones D. dressing stones |
| Crushing strength of a good building stone should be more than____________? |
| A. 50 MPa B. 100 MPa C. 150 MPa D. 200 MPa |
| Spalling hammer is used for_____________? |
| A. driving wooden headed chisels B. rough dressing of stones C. carving of stones D. breaking small projection of stones |
| Which of the following timbers is suitable for making sports goods ? |
| A. mulberry B. mahogany C. sal D. deodar |
| Sapwood consists of______________? |
| A. innermost annular rings around the pith B. portion of timber between heartwood and cambium layer C. thin layers below the bark D. thin fibre which extends from the pith outwards and holds the annular rings together |
| In which of the following pairs both trees yield soft wood ? |
| A. deodar and shishum B. chir and sal C. sal and teak D. chir and deodar |
| Which of the following trees yields hard wood ? |
| A. deodar B. chir C. shishum D. pine |
| The radial splits which are wider on the outside of the log and narrower towards the pith are known as________________? |
| A. heart shakes B. cupshakes C. starshakes D. rindgalls |
| The disease of dry rot in timber is caused by_____________? |
| A. lack of ventilation B. alternate wet and dry conditions C. complete submergence in water D. none of the above |
| In which of the following directions, the strength of timber is maximum ? |
| A. parallel to grains B. 45° to grains C. perpendicular to grains D. same in all directions |
| Which of the following represents a metamorphic rock? (1) slate (2) shale (3) quartzite . The correct answer is___________? |
| A. only (3) B. both (1) and (3) C. both (2) and (3) D. all (1), (2) and (3) |
| Assertion A : Shishum is used for decorative woodwork. Reason R : Shishum can be polished to an excellent finish. Select your answer according to the coding system given below ? |
| A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A C. A is true but R is false D. A is false but R is true |
| The moisture content in a well seasoned timber is_______________? |
| A. 4% to 6% B. 10% to 12% C. 15% to 20% D. 100% |
| Plywood has the advantage of_____________? |
| A. greater tensile strength in longer direction B. greater tensile strength in shorter direction C. same tensile strength in all directions D. none of the above |
| The plywood______________? |
| A. has good strength along the panel only B. can be spilt in the plane of the panel C. has greater impact resistance to blows than ordinary wood D. cannot be bent more easily than ordinary wood of same thickness |
| First class timber has an average life of_____________? |
| A. less than one year B. 1 to 5 years C. 5 to 10 years D. more than 10 years |
| The main function of alumina in brick earth is_______________? |
| A. to impart plasticity B. to make the brick durable C. to prevent shrinkage D. to make the brick impermeable |
| A first class brick when immersed in cold water for 24 hours should not absorb water more than______________? |
| A. 15% B. 20% C. 22% D. 25% |
| Plywood is made by bonding together thin layers of wood in such a way that the angle between grains of any layer to grains of adjacent layers is_________________? |
| A. 0° B. 30° C. 45° D. 90° |
| The trunk of tree left after cutting all the branches is known as_______________? |
| A. log B. batten C. plank D. baulk |
| The practical limit of moisture content achieved in air drying of timber is________________? |
| A. 5% B. 15% C. 25% D. 35% |
| Crushing strength of a first class brick should not be less than_____________? |
| A. 3.5 N/mm2 B. 7.0 N/mm2 C. 10.5 N/mm2 D. 14.0 N/mm2 |
| The age of a tree can be known by examining_________________? |
| A. cambium layer B. annular rings C. medullary rays D. heart wood |
| Excess of alumina in brick earth makes the brick______________? |
| A. impermeable B. brittle and weak C. to lose cohesion D. to crack and warp on drying |
| Percentage of silica in a good brick earth lies between_______________? |
| A. 5 to 10% B. 20 to 30% C. 50 to 60% D. 70 to 80% |
| The percentage of alumina in a good brick earth lies between________________? |
| A. 5 to 10% B. 20 to 30% C. 50 to 60% D. 70 to 80% |
| The nominal size of the modular brick is_______________? |
| A. 190 mm x 90mmx 80 mm B. 190 mm x 190 mm x 90 mm C. 200 mm x 100 mm x 100 mm D. 200 mm x 200 mm x 100 mm |
| Excess of silica in brick earth results in______________? |
| A. cracking and warping of bricks B. loss of cohesion C. enhancing the impermeability of bricks D. none of the above |
| Which of the following ingredients of the brick earth enables the brick to retain its shape ? |
| A. alumina B. silica C. iron D. magnesia |
| The process of mixing clay, water and other ingredients to make brick is known as______________? |
| A. kneading B. moulding C. pugging D. drying |
| The internal size of mould used in brick preparation is__________________? |
| A. equal to the size of a fully burnt brick B. smaller than the size of a fully burnt brick C. greater than the size of a fully burnt brick D. none of the above |
| Which of the following bricks are used for lining of furnaces ? |
| A. overburnt bricks B. underburnt bricks C. refractory bricks D. first class bricks |
| Pug mill is used for_______________? |
| A. preparation of clay B. moulding of clay C. drying of bricks D. burning of bricks |
| Which of the following pairs gives a correct combination of the useful and harmful constituents respectively of a good brick earth ? |
| A. lime stone and alumina B. silica and alkalies C. alumina and iron D. alkalies and magnesium |
| The frog of the brick in a brick masonry is generally kept on______________? |
| A. bottom face B. top face C. shorter side D. longer side |
| Advantage of a clamp compared to a kiln for burning bricks is that_______________? |
| A. it takes less time for burning B. it gives more output of first class bricks C. it has less initial cost D. it is suitable when bricks are required in large numbers |
| Number of bricks required for one cubic metre of brick masonry is____________? |
| A. 400 B. 450 C. 500 D. 550 |
| Quick lime is_______________? |
| A. calcium carbonate B. calcium oxide C. calcium hydroxide D. none of the above |
| Quick lime is (1) slow in setting (2) rapid in slacking (3) good in strength The correct answer is____________? |
| A. only (1) B. only (2) C. both (1) and (2) D. both (2) and (3) |
| Glazing is used to make earthenware______________? |
| A. hard B. soft C. porous D. impervious |
| Hydraulic lime is obtained by_______________? |
| A. burning of lime stone B. burning of kankar C. adding water to quick lime D. calcination of pure clay |
| The main ingredients of Portland cement are________________? |
| A. lime and silica B. lime and alumina C. silica and alumina D. lime and iron |
| Le Chatelier’s device is used for determining the_______________? |
| A. setting time of cement B. soundness of cement C. tensile strength of cement D. compressive strength of cement |
| The initial setting time for ordinary Portland cement as per IS specifications should not be less than_____________? |
| A. 10 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 600 minutes |
| The constituent of cement which is responsible for all the undesirable properties of cement is____________? |
| A. dicalcium silicate B. tricalcium silicate C. tricalcium aluminate D. tetra calcium alumino ferrite |
| As per IS specifications, the maximum final setting time for ordinary Portland cement should be_______________? |
| A. 30 minutes B. 1 hour C. 6 hours D. 10 hours |
| Study the following statements. (1) Hydraulic lime is suitable for white washing, (2) Fat lime is suitable for whitewashing, (3) Hydraulic lime is suitable for making mortar, (4) Fat lime is suitable for making mortar. The correct answer is______________? |
| A. (1) and (4) B. (2) and (3) C. (1) and (2) D. (3) and (4) |
| Assertion A : Pure lime takes a long time to develop adequate strength. Reason R : Pure lime has slow hardening characteristics. Select your answer according to the coding system given below ? |
| A. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A B. Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A C. A is true but R is false D. A is false but R is true |
| The main constituent which imparts hydraulicity to hydraulic lime is______________? |
| A. calcium oxide B. silica C. clay D. water |
| The main constituent of cement which is responsible for initial setting of cement is_________________? |
| A. dicalcium silicate B. tricalcium silicate C. tricalcium aluminate D. all of the above |
| For testing compressive strength of cement, the size of cube used is_______________? |
| A. 50 mm B. 70.6 mm C. 100 mm D. 150 mm |
| Early attainment of strength in rapid hardening cement is mainly due to_______________? |
| A. gypsum B. finer grinding C. tricalcium silicate D. tricalcium aluminate |
| According to IS specifications, the compressive strength of ordinary portland cement after three days should not be less than________________? |
| A. 7 MPa B. 11.5 MPa C. 16 MPa D. 21 MPa |
| With increase in moisture content, the bulking of sand_______________? |
| A. increases B. decreases C. first increases to a certain maximum value and then decreases D. first decreases to a certain minimum value and then increases |
| Addition of pozzolana to ordinary Portland cement increases__________________? |
| A. bleeding B. shrinkage C. permeability D. heat of hydration |
| The slump recommended for mass concrete is about_______________? |
| A. 25 mm to 50 mm B. 50 mm to 100 mm C. 100 mm to 125 mm D. 125 mm to 150 mm |
| After storage, the strength of cement________________? |
| A. decreases B. increases C. remains same D. may increase or decrease |
| The normal consistency of ordinary Portland cement is about________________? |
| A. 10% B. 20% C. 30% D. 40% |
| Gypsum consists of______________? |
| A. H2S and C02 B. CaS04 and H20 C. Lime and H20 D. C02 and calcium |
| For testing compressive and tensile strength of cement, the cement mortar is made by mixing cement and standard sand in the proportions of___________________? |
| A. 1:2 B. 1:3 C. 1:4 D. 1:6 |
| Which of the following cements is suitable for use in massive concrete structures such as large dams ? |
| A. ordinary Portland cement B. low heat cement C. rapid hardening cement D. sulphate resisting cement |
| The maximum quantity of calcium chloride used as an accelerator in cement in percentage by weight of cement is_______________? |
| A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
| The most common admixture which is used to accelerate the initial set of concrete is______________? |
| A. gypsum B. calcium chloride C. calcium carbonate D. none of the above |
| Which of the following gradients exerts maximum influence on properties of steel? |
| A. iron B. carbon C. manganese D. sulphur |
| Three basic raw materials which are needed in large quantities for production of steel are_______________? |
| A. iron ore, coal and sulphur B. iron ore, carbon and sulphur C. iron ore, coal and lime stone D. iron ore, carbon and lime stone |
| Which of the following cements contains maximum percentage of dicalcium silicate? |
| A. ordinary Portland cement B. low heat cement C. rapid hardening cement D. sulphate resisting cement |
| The ultimate tensile strength of structural mild steel is about_________________? |
| A. 160N/mm2 B. 260N/mm2 C. 420 N/mm2 D. 520 N/mm2 |
| The most commonly used retarder in cement is_________________? |
| A. gypsum B. calcium chloride C. calcium carbonate D. none of the above |
| The basic purpose of a retarder in concrete is_____________? |
| A. to increase the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete B. to decrease the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete C. to render the concrete more water tight D. to improve the workability of concrete mix |
| Which of the following is the purest form of iron ? |
| A. cast iron B. wrought iron C. mild steel D. high carbon steel |
| Assertion A : Normally turpentine oil is recommended as thinner for indoor painting. Reason R : Turpentine oil is costlier than other thinners. Select your answer according to the coding system given below ? |
| A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A C. A is true but R is false D. A is false but R is true |
| The amount of water used for one kg of distemper is_____________? |
| A. 0.2 liter B. 0.4 liter C. 0.6 liter D. 0.8 liter |
| In brick masonry the bond produced by laying alternate headers and stretchers in each course is known as_______________? |
| A. English bond B. double flemish bond C. zigzag bond D. single flemish bond |
| The vehicle used in case of enamel paints is usually______________? |
| A. linseed oil B. water C. varnish D. none of the above |
| Paints with white lead base are suitable for painting of______________________? |
| A. wood work B. iron work C. both wood work and iron work D. none of the above |
| Which of the following stresses is used for identifying the quality of structural steel ? |
| A. ultimate stress B. yield stress C. proof stress D. none of the above |
| Assertion A : Paints with white lead base are not recommended for painting of iron works. Reason R : Paints with white lead base do not check rusting of iron. Select your answer according to the coding system given below ? |
| A. Both A and R are true and, R is the correct explanation of A B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A C. A is true but R is false D. A is false but R is true |
| The ratio of the thickness of web to that of flange of steel rolled structural beams and channels is______________? |
| A. less than 1 B. equal to 1 C. greater than 1 D. less than 1 in beams but greater than 1 in channels |
| Percentage of carbon content in mild steel is_______________? |
| A. less than 0.25 B. between 0.25 and 0.7 C. between 0.7 and 1.5 D. greater than 1.5 |
| The pressure acting on the stones in stone masonry construction should be_____________? |
| A. along the direction of bedding planes B. at 45° to the direction of bedding planes C. at 60° to the direction of bedding planes D. perpendicular to the direction of bedding planes |
| A queen closer is a______________? |
| A. brick laid with its length parallel to the face or direction of wall B. brick laid with its breadth parallel to the face or direction of wall C. brick having the same length and depth as the other bricks but half the breadth D. brick with half the width at one end and full width at the other |
| The stretcher bond in brick masonry can be used only when the thickness of wall is_____________? |
| A. 90 mm B. 180 mm C. 190 mm D. 280 mm |
| Which of the following should be used for hearting of thicker walls ? |
| A. headers B. stretchers C. brick bats D. queen closer |
| The most important tool in brick laying for lifting and spreading mortar and for forming joints is____________? |
| A. trowel B. square C. bolster D. scutch |
| The type of bond provided in brick masonry for carrying heavy loads is___________? |
| A. single flemish bond B. double flemish bond C. English bond D. zigzag bond |
| Minimum thickness of wall where single flemish bond can be used is_____________? |
| A. half brick thick B. one brick thick C. one and a half bricks thick D. two bricks thick |
| Expansion Joints in masonry walls are provided in wall lengths usater than_______________? |
| A. 10 m B. 20 m C. 30 m D. 40 m |
| A mortar joint in masonry which is normal to the face of wall is known as_________________? |
| A. bed joint B. wall joint C. cross joint D. bonded joint |
| The proportions of lime and sand in the mortar normally used in brick construction are_______________? |
| A. 1:2 B. 1:4 C. 1:6 D. 1:8 |
| As compared to stretcher course, the thickness of joints in header course should be_____________? |
| A. less B. more C. equal D. equal or more |
| The slenderness ratio for masonry walls should not be more than_____________? |
| A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40 |
| Number of vertical joints in a stretcher course is x times the number of joints in the header course, where x is equal to_________________? |
| A. 1/2 B. 1 C. 2 D. 1/4 |
| Single flemish bond consists of___________________? |
| A. double flemish bond facing and Eng-lish bond backing in each course B. English bond facing and double flemish bond backing in each course C. stretcher bond facing and double flemish bond backing in each course D. double flemish bond facing and header bond backing in each course |
| In case of foundations on black cotton soils, the most suitable method to increase the bearing capacity of soils is to_________________? |
| A. increase the depth of foundation B. drain the soil C. compact the soil D. replace the poor soi |
| A. 25 mm B. 40 mm C. 65 mm D. 100 mm |
| The maximum total settlement for raft foundation on clayey soils should be limited to______________? |
| A. 25 mm B. 25 to 40 mm C. 40 to 65 mm D. 65 to 100 mm |
| The type of flooring suitable for use in churches, theatres, public libraries and other places where noiseless floor covering is desired is____________________? |
| A. cork flooring B. glass flooring C. wooden flooring D. linoleum flooring |
| Depth or height of the arch is the________________? |
| A. perpendicular distance between intra-dos and extrados B. vertical distance between springing line and intrados C. perpendicular distance between springing line and extrados D. none of the above |
| The type of pile which is driven at an inclination to resist inclined forces is known as______________? |
| A. friction pile B. sheet pile C. batter pile D. anchor pile |
| The bearing capacity of a water logged soil can be improved by_____________? |
| A. compacting the soil B. draining the soil C. increasing the depth of foundation D. grouting |
| The minimum depth of foundation in clayey soils is_______________? |
| A. 0.5 m B. 0.7 m C. 0.9 m D. 1.2 m |
| The vertical distance between the springing line and highest point of the innercurve of an arch is known as______________? |
| A. intrados B. rise C. spandril D. extrados |
| The type of arch generally constructed over a wooden lintel or over a flat arch for the purpose of carrying the load of the wall above is_______________? |
| A. segmental arch B. pointed arch C. relieving arch D. flat arch |
| The triangular space formed between the extrados and the horizontal line drawn through the crown of an arch is known as_____________________? |
| A. haunch B. spandril C. voussoirs D. skewbacks |
| In the construction of arches, sand box method is used for________________? |
| A. centring B. actual laying of arch work C. striking of centring D. none of the above |
| The type of roof suitable in plains where rainfall is meagre and temperature is high is______________? |
| A. pitched and sloping roof B. flat roof C. shell roof D. none of the above |
| The lintels are preferred to arches because______________? |
| A. arches require more headroom to span the openings like doors, windows etc. B. arches require strong abutments to withstand arch thrust C. arches are difficult in construction D. all of the above |
| The type of joint commonly used at the junction of a principal rafter and tie beam in timber trussess is__________________? |
| A. mortise and tennon joint B. oblique mortise and tennon joint C. butt joint D. mitred joint |
| The type of roof which slopes in two directions with a break in the slope on each side is known as_____________? |
| A. gable roof B. hip roof C. gambrel roof D. mansard roof |
| The horizontal timber piece provided at the apex of a roof truss which supports the common rafter is called______________? |
| A. ridge board B. hip rafter C. eaves board D. valley rafter |
| Pitched and sloping roofs are suitable for________________? |
| A. coastal regions B. plain regions C. covering large areas D. all of the above |
| Mansard roof is a roof which slopes in________________? |
| A. two directions without break in the slope on each side B. two directions with break in the slope on each side C. four directions without break in the slope on each side D. four directions with break in the slope on each side |
| The lower edge of the pitched roof, from where the rain water of the roof surface drops down, is known as______________? |
| A. hip B. gable C. ridge D. eaves |
| Couple close roof is suitable for maximum span of________________? |
| A. 2.5 m B. 3.5 m C. 4.5 m D. 5.5 m |
| Higher pitch of the roof (1) results in stronger roof (2) results in weaker roof (3) requires more covering material (4) requires less covering material The correct answer is___________? |
| A. (1) and (3) B. (1) and (4) C. (2) and (3) D. (2) and (4) |
| The function of cleats in a roof truss is______________? |
| A. to support the common rafter B. to support purlins C. to prevent the purlins from tilting D. all of the above |
| Couple close roof is suitable for maximum span of______________? |
| A. 2.5 m B. 3.5 m C. 4.5 m D. 5.5 m |
| The function of king post in a king post roof truss is_______________? |
| A. to support the frame work of the roof B. to receive the ends of principal rafter C. to prevent the walls from spreading outward D. to prevent the tie beam from sagging at its centre |
| In any good staircase, the maximum and minimum pitch respectively should be_____________? |
| A. 90° and 0° B. 75° and 30° C. 60° and 10° D. 40° and 25° |
| Sum of tread and rise must lie between_______________? |
| A. 300 to 350 mm B. 400 to 450 mm C. 500 to 550 mm D. 600 to 650 mm |
| The maximum number of steps in a flight should generally be restricted to______________? |
| A. 10 B. 12 C. 15 D. no limit |
| Minimum width of landing should be_______________? |
| A. equal to width of stairs B. half the width of stairs C. twice the width of stairs D. one fourth the width of stairs |
| The vertical posts placed at the top and bottom ends of a flight supporting the hand rail are known as_________________? |
| A. balusters B. newal posts C. balustrades D. railings |
| The number of steps in a flight generally should not be less than________________? |
| A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. no limit |
| The term string is used for______________? |
| A. the underside of a stair B. outer projecting edge of a tread C. a sloping member which supports the steps in a stair D. a vertical member between two treads |
| In a colar beam roof_______________? |
| A. there is no horizontal tie beam B. there is a horizontal tie at the feet of rafters only C. there is a horizontal tie at almost the middle of rafters only D. there are two horizontal ties, one at the feet and other at the middle of the rafters |
| The type of footing which is used to transmit heavy loads through steel columns is_______________? |
| A. raft foundation B. grillage foundation C. well foundation D. isolated footing |
| The differential settlement in case of foundations on sandv soils should not exceed_____________? |
| A. 25 mm B. 40 mm C. 65 mm D. 100 mm |
| As compared to English bond, double flemish bond is_________________? |
| A. stronger B. more compact C. costly D. none of the above |
| Compared to mild steel, cast iron has (1) high compressive strength (2) high tensile strength (3) low compressive strength (4) low tensile strength The correct answer is_________________? |
| A. (1) and (2) B. (2) and (3) C. (3) and (4) D. (1)and(4) |
| Proper amount of entrained air in concrete results in__________? |
| 1. better workability 2. better resistance to freezing and thawing 3. lesser workability 4. less resistance to freezing and thawing The correct answer is: |
| A. (1) and (2) B. (1)and(4) C. ((2)and (3) D. (3)and (4) |
| The shape of the camber, best suited for cement concrete pavements, is_______________? |
| A. straight line B. parabolic C. elliptical D. combination of straight and parabolic |
| The stopping sight distance depends upon_______________? |
| A. total reaction time of driver B. speed of vehicle C. efficiency of brakes D. all of the above |
| Coefficient of friction is less when the pavement surface is________________? |
| A. rough B. dry C. smooth and dry D. smooth and wet |
| Camber in the road is provided for_______________? |
| A. effective drainage B. counteracting the centrifugal force C. having proper sight distance D. none of the above |
| On a single lane road with two way traffic, the minimum stopping sight distance is equal to______________? |
| A. stopping distance B. two times the stopping distance C. half the stopping distance D. three times the stopping distance |
| The shoulder provided along the road edge should be_______________? |
| A. rougher than the traffic lanes B. smoother than the traffic lanes C. of same colour as that of the pavement D. of very low load bearing capacity |
| When the path travelled along the road surface is more than the circumferential movement of the wheels due to rotation, then it results in______________? |
| A. slipping B. skidding C. turning D. revolving |
| For water bound macadam roads in localities of heavy rainfall, the recommended value of camber is_______________? |
| A. 1 in 30 B. 1 in 36 C. 1 in 48 D. 1 in 60 |
| The sequence of four stages of survey in a highway alignment is______________? |
| A. reconnaissance, map study, preliminary survey and detailed survey B. map study, preliminary survey, reconnaissance and detailed survey C. map study, reconnaissance, preliminary survey and detailed survey D. preliminary survey, map study, reconnaissance and detailed survey |
| Nagpur road plan formula were prepared by assuming______________? |
| A. rectangular or block road pattern B. radial or star and block road pattern C. radial or star and circular road pattern D. radial or star and grid road pattern |
| Compared to a level surface, on a descending gradient the stopping sight distance is_______________? |
| A. less B. more C. same D. dependent on the speed |
| The desirable length of overtaking zone as per IRC recommendation is equal to________________? |
| A. overtaking sight distance B. two times the overtaking sight distance C. three times the overtaking sight distance D. five times the overtaking sight distance |
| Select the correct statement______________? |
| A. Nagpur road plan formula take into account the towns with very large population B. Nagpur road plan has a target road length of 32 km per 100 square km C. Second 20-year plan has provided 1600 km of expressways out of the proposed National highway D. Second 20-year plan allowed deduction of length of railway track in the area while calculating the length of roads |
| Reaction time of a driver_______________? |
| A. increases with increase in speed B. decreases with increase in speed C. is same for all speeds D. none of the above |
| If the stopping distance is 60 meters, then the minimum stopping sight distance for two lane, two way traffic is_________________? |
| A. 30m B. 60m C. 120m D. 180m |
| If b is the wheel track of a vehicle and h is the height of centre of gravity above road surface, then to avoid overturning and lateral skidding on a horizontal curve, the centrifugal ratio should always be________________? |
| A. less than b/2h and greater than co-efficient of lateral friction B. less than b/2h and also less than co-efficient of lateral friction C. greater than b/2h and less than co-efficient of lateral friction D. greater than b/2h and also greater than coefficient of lateral friction |
| The ruling design speed on a National Highway in plain terrain as per IRC recommendations is_____________? |
| A. 60 kmph B. 80 kmph C. 100 kmph D. 120 kmph |
| The effect of grade on safe overtaking sight distance is_______________? |
| A. to increase it on descending grades and to decrease it on ascending grades B. to decrease it on descending grades and to increase it on ascending grades C. to increase it on both descending and ascending grades D. to decrease it on both descending and ascending grades |
| Stopping sight distance is always_______________? |
| A. less than overtaking sight distance B. equal to overtaking sight distance C. more than overtaking sight distance D. none of the above |
| The terrain may be classified as rolling terrain if the cross slope of land is______________? |
| A. upto 10% B. between 10% and 25% C. between 25% and 60% D. more than 60% |
| For the design of super elevation for mixed traffic conditions, the speed is reduced by_____________? |
| A. 15% B. 20% C. 25% D. 75% |
| For a constant value of coefficient of lateral friction, the value of required super-elevation increases with_______________? |
| A. increase in both speed and radius of curve B. decrease in both speed and radius of curve C. increase in speed and with decrease in radius of curve D. decrease in speed and with increase in radius of curve |
| As per IRC recommendations, the maximum limit of super elevation for mixed traffic in plain terrain is_______________? |
| A. 1 in 15 B. 1 in 12.5 C. 1 in 10 D. equal to camber |
| On a horizontal curve if the pavement is kept horizontal across the alignment, then the pressure on the outer wheels will be_________________? |
| A. more than the pressure on inner wheels B. less than the pressure on inner wheels C. equal to the pressure on inner wheels |
| The attainment of super elevation by rotation of pavement about the inner edge of the pavement_______________? |
| A. is preferable in steep terrain B. results in balancing the earthwork C. avoids the drainage problem in flat terrain D. does not change the vertical alignment of road |
| To calculate the minimum value of ruling radius of horizontal curves in plains, the design speed is given by_________________? |
| A. 8 kmph B. 12kmph C. 16kmph D. 20 kmph |
| In case of hill roads, the extra widening is generally provided______________? |
| A. equally on inner and outer sides of the curve B. fully on the inner side of the curve C. fully on the outer side of the curve D. one-fourth on inner side and three-fourth on outer side of the curve |
| The maximum design gradient for vertical profile of a road is______________? |
| A. ruling gradient B. limiting gradient C. exceptional gradient D. minimum gradient |
| The transition curve used in the horizontal alignment of highways as per IRC recommendations is_______________? |
| A. spiral B. lemniscate C. cubic parabola D. any of the above |
| The absolute minimum radius of curve for safe operation for a speed of 110 kmph is______________? |
| A. 110 m B. 220 m C. 440 m D. 577 m |
| Select the correct statement_________________? |
| A. Psychological extra widening depends on the number of traffic lanes. B. Mechanical extra widening depends on the speed of vehicle. C. Psychological extra widening depends on the length of wheel base. D. Psychological extra widening depends on the speed of vehicle |
| For design, that length of transition curve should be taken which is_____________? |
| A. based on allowable rate of change of centrifugal acceleration B. based on rate of change of super elevation C. higher of (A) and (B) D. smaller of (A) and (B) |
| If ruling gradient is I in 20 and there is also a horizontal curve of radius 76 m, then the compensated grade should be_________________? |
| A. 3 % B. 4% C. 5 % D. 6% |
| Which of the following shapes is preferred in a valley curve ? |
| A. simple parabola B. cubic parabola C. spiral D. lemniscate |
| The percentage compensation in gradient for ruling gradient of 4% and horizontal curve of radius 760 m is____________________? |
| A. 0.1 % B. 1 % C. 10% D. no compensation |
| The camber of road should be approximately equal to___________________? |
| A. longitudinal gradient B. two times the longitudinal gradient C. three times the longitudinal gradient D. half the longitudinal gradient |
| In case of summit curves, the deviation angle will be maximum when_______________? |
| A. an ascending gradient meets with another ascending gradient B. an ascending gradient meets with a descending gradient C. a descending gradient meets with another descending gradient D. an ascending gradient meets with a level surface |
| Enoscope is used to find______________? |
| A. average speed B. spot speed C. space-mean speed D. time-mean speed |
| If an ascending gradient of 1 in 50 meets a descending gradient of 1 in 50, the length of summit curve for a stopping sight distance of 80 m will be_______________? |
| A. zero B. 64m C. 80m D. 60m |
| The value of ruling gradient in plains as per IRC recommendation is______________? |
| A. 1 in 12 B. 1 m 15 C. 1 in 20 D. 1 in 30 |
| If the design speed is V kmph and deviation angle is N radians, then the total length of a valley curve in meters is given by the expression_________________? |
| A. 0.38 N V3/2 B. 0.38 (NV3)”2 C. 3.8 NV”2 D. 3.8 (NV3)”2 |
| Highway facilities are designed for_________________? |
| A. annual average hourly volume B. annual average daily traffic C. thirtieth highest hourly volume D. peak hourly volume of the year |
| For highway geometric design purposes the speed used is________________? |
| A. 15th percentile B. 50 “”percentile C. 85th percentile D. 98 “”percentile |
| The maximum width of a vehicle as recommended by IRC is________________? |
| A. 1.85m B. 2.44 m C. 3.81 m D. 4.72 m |
| Select the correct statement__________________? |
| A. Traffic volume should always be more than traffic capacity B. Traffic capacity should always be more than traffic volume C. Spot speed is the average speed of a vehicle at a specified section D. 85th percentile speed is more than 98th percentile speed |
| Which of the following methods is preferred for collecting origin and destination data for a small area like a mass business center or a large intersection ? |
| A. road side interview method B. license plate method C. return postcard method D. home interview method |
| Length of a vehicle affects________________? |
| A. width of traffic lanes B. extra width of pavement and minimum turning radius C. width of shoulders and parking facilities D. clearance to be provided under structures such as overbridges, under-bridges etc |
| Desire lines are plotted in_________________? |
| A. traffic volume studies B. speed studies C. accident studies D. origin and destination studies |
| The diagram which shows the approximate path of vehicles and pedestrians involved in accidents is known as___________________? |
| A. spot maps B. pie charts C. condition diagram D. collision diagram |
| Which of the following is known as design capacity ? |
| A. basic capacity B. theoretical capacity C. possible capacity D. practical capacity |
| Equivalent factor of passenger car unit (PCU) for a passenger car as per IRC is_____________? |
| A. 1.0 B. 2.0 C. 0.5 D. 10 |
| With increase in speed of the traffic stream, the minimum spacing of vehicles________________? |
| A. increases B. decreases C. first decreases and then increases after reaching a minimum value at optimum speed D. first increases and then decreases after reaching a maximum value at optimum speed |
| With increase in speed of the traffic stream, the maximum capacity of the lane________________? |
| A. increases B. decreases C. first increases and then decreases after reaching a maximum value at optimum speed D. first decreases and then increases after reaching a minimum value at optimum speed |
| If the stopping distance and average length of a vehicle are 18 m and 6 m respectively, then the theoretical maxi¬mum capacity of a traffic lane at a speed of 10 m/sec is________________? |
| A. 1500 vehicles per hour B. 2000 vehicles per hour C. 2500 vehicles per hour D. 3000 vehicles per hour |
| The diagram which shows all important physical conditions of an accident location like roadway limits, bridges, trees and all details of roadway conditions is known as_____________? |
| A. pie chart B. spot maps C. condition diagram D. collision diagram |
| The background colour of the informatory sign board is______________? |
| A. red B. yellow C. green D. white |
| When the speed of traffic flow becomes zero,then_______________? |
| A. traffic density attains maximum value whereas traffic volume becomes zero B. traffic density and traffic volume both attain maximum value C. traffic density and traffic volume both become zero D. traffic density becomes zero whereas traffic volume attains maximum value |
| Scientific planning of transportation system and mass transit facilities in cities should be based on_____________? |
| A. spot speed data B. origin and destination data C. traffic volume data D. accident data |
| On a right angled road intersection with two way traffic, the total number of conflict points is______________? |
| A. 6 B. 11 C. 18 D. 24 |
| Which of the following is indicated by a warning sign ? |
| A. level crossing B. no parking C. end of speed limit D. overtaking prohibited |
| The most efficient traffic signal system is________________? |
| A. simultaneous system B. alternate system C. flexible progressive system D. simple progressive system |
| Select the incorrect statement? |
| A. Stop or red time of a signal is the sum of go and clearance intervals for the cross flow B. Go or green time of a signal is the sum of stop and clearance intervals for the cross flow C. Clearance time is generally 3 to 5 seconds D. The cycle length is normally 40 to 60 seconds for two phase signals |
| “Dead Slow” is a______________? |
| A. regulatory sign B. warning sign C. informatory sign D. none of the above |
| The provision of traffic signals at intersections______________? |
| A. reduces right angled and rear end collisions B. increases right angled and rear end collisions C. reduces right angled collisions but may increase rear end collisions D. reduces rear end collisions but may increase right angled collisions |
| The particular places where pedestrians are to cross the pavement are properly marked by the pavement marking known as________________? |
| A. stop lines B. turn markings C. crosswalk lines D. lane lines |
| When two equally important roads cross roughly at right angles, the suitable shape of central island is________________? |
| A. circular B. elliptical C. tangent D. turbine |
| Centre line markings are used_____________? |
| A. to designate traffic lanes B. in roadways meant for two way traffic C. to indicate that overtaking is not permitted D. to designate proper lateral placement of vehicles before turning to different directions |
| The entrance and exit curves of a rotary have_______________? |
| A. equal radii and equal widths of pavement B. equal radii but pavement width is more at entrance than at exit curve C. equal pavement widths but radius is more at entrance curve than at exit curve D. different radii and different widths of pavement |
| The maximum number of vehicles beyond which the rotary may not function efficiently is______________? |
| A. 500 vehicles per hour B. 500 vehicles per day C. 5000 vehicles per hour D. 5000 vehicles per day |
| As per IRC recommendations, the average level of illumination on important roads carrying fast traffic is______________? |
| A. 10 lux B. 15 lux C. 20 lux D. 30 lux |
| Maximum number of vehicles can be parked with_______________? |
| A. parallel parking B. 30° angle parking C. 45° angle parking D. 90° angle parking |
| A traffic rotary is justified where______________? |
| A. number of intersecting roads is between 4 and 7 B. space is limited and costly C. when traffic volume is less than 500 vehicles per hour D. when traffic volume is more than 5000 vehicles per hour |
| When a number of roads are meeting at a point and only one of the roads is important, then the suitable shape of rotary is________________? |
| A. circular B. tangent C. elliptical D. turbine |
| When the width of kerb parking space and width of street are limited, generally preferred parking system is________________? |
| A. parallel parking B. 45° angle parking C. 65° angle parking D. 90° angle parking |
| The most economical lighting layout which is suitable for narrow roads is_______________? |
| A. single side lighting B. staggered system C. central lighting system D. none of the above |
| In soils having same values of plasticity index, if liquid limit is increased, then_____________? |
| A. compressibility and permeability decrease and dry strength increases B. compressibility, permeability and dry strength decrease C. compressibility, permeability and dry strength increase D. compressibility and permeability increase and dry strength decreases |
| Los Angeles testing machine is used to conduct______________? |
| A. abrasion test B. impact test C. attrition test D. crushing strength test |
| The direct interchange ramp involves____________? |
| A. diverging to the right side and merging from left B. diverging to the left side and merging from right C. diverging to the right side and merging from right D. diverging to the left side and merging from left |
| Which of the following tests measures the toughness of road aggregates ? |
| A. crushing strength test B. abrasion test C. impact test D. shape test |
| If aggregate impact value is 20 to 30 percent, then it is classified as_______________? |
| A. exceptionally strong B. strong C. satisfactory for road surfacing D. unsuitable for road surfacing |
| Percentage of free carbon in bitumen is______________? |
| A. more than that in tar B. less than that in tar C. equal to that in tar D. none of the above |
| In CBR test the value of CBR is calculated at_______________? |
| A. 2.5 mm penetration only B. 5.0 mm penetration only C. 7.5 mm penetration only D. both 2.5mm and 5.0 mm penetrations |
| The maximum allowable Los Angeles abrasion value for high quality surface course is_______________? |
| A. 10% B. 20 % C. 30% D. 45 % |
| The ductility value of bitumen for suitability in road construction should not be less than____________? |
| A. 30 cm B. 40 cm C. 50 cm D. 60 cm |
| Which of the following represents hardest grade of bitumen ? |
| A. 30/40 B. 60/70 C. 80/100 D. 100/120 |
| Bitumen of grade 80/100 means______________? |
| A. its penetration value is 8 mm B. its penetration value is 10 mm C. its penetration value is 8 to 10 mm D. its penetration value is 8 to 10 cm |
| Softening point of bitumen to be used for read construction at a place where maximum temperature is 40° C should be______________? |
| A. less-than 40°C B. greater than 40°C C. equal to 40°C D. none of the above |
| The group index for a soil, whose liquid limit is 40 percent, plasticity index is 10 percent and percentage passing 75 micron IS sieve is 35, is______________? |
| A. 0 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7 |
| Group index method of design of flexible pavement is_______________? |
| A. a theoretical method B. an empirical method based on physical properties of subgrade soil C. an empirical method based on strength characteristics of subgrade soil D. a semi empirical method |
| Flexible pavement distribute the wheel load_____________? |
| A. directly to subgrade B. through structural action C. through a set of layers to the subgrade D. none of the above |
| The method of design of flexible pavement as recommended by IRC is____________? |
| A. group index method B. CBR method C. Westergaard method D. Benkelman beam method |
| Penetration test on bitumen is used for determining its_____________? |
| A. grade B. viscosity C. ductility D. temperature susceptibility |
| The recommended grade of tar for grouting purpose is_______________? |
| A. RT-1 B. RT-2 C. RT.3 D. RT-5 |
| The maximum limit of water absorption for aggregate suitable for road construction is____________? |
| A. 0.4 % B. 0.6% C. 0.8 % D. 1.0 % |
| RC-2, MC-2 and SC-2 correspond to_______________? |
| A. same viscosity B. viscosity in increasing order from RC-2 to SC-2 C. viscosity in decreasing order from RC-2 to SC-2 D. none of the above |
| For rapid curing cutbacks, the oil used is______________? |
| A. gasoline B. kerosene oil C. light diesel D. heavy diesel |
| Bottom most layer of pavement is known as_____________? |
| A. wearing course B. base course C. sub-base course D. subgrade |
| The number of repetitions, which the pavement thickness designed for a given wheel load should be able to support during the life of pavement is______________? |
| A. 1000 B. 10000 C. 100000 D. 1000000 |
| Tyre pressure influences the______________? |
| A. total depth of pavement B. quality of surface course C. both the above D. none of the above |
| Select the correct statement______________? |
| A. More the value of group index, less thickness of pavement will be required B. More the value of CBR, greater thickness of pavement will be required C. Minimum and maximum values of group index can be 0 and 20 respectively D. all of the above |
| Rigidity factor for a tyre pressure greater than 7 kg/cm2 is_______________? |
| A. equal to 1 B. less than 1 C. greater than 1 D. zero |
| Tie bars in cement concrete pavements are at______________? |
| A. expansion joints B. contraction joints C. warping joints D. longitudinal joints |
| The function of an expansion joint in rigid pavements is to______________? |
| A. relieve warping stresses B. relieve shrinkage stresses C. resist stresses due to expansion D. allow free expansion |
| The maximum spacing of contraction joints in rigid pavements is_____________? |
| A. 2.5 m B. 3.5 m C. 4.5 m D. 5.5m |
| The critical combination of stresses for corner region in cement concrete roads is____________? |
| A. load stress + warping stress frictional stress B. load stress + warping stress + frictional stress C. load stress + warping stress D. load stress + frictional stress |
| If the group index value of subgrade is between 5 and 9, then the subgrade is treated as_____________? |
| A. good B. fair C. poor D. very poor |
| The maximum thickness of expansion joint in rigid pavements is______________? |
| A. 0 B. 25 mm C. 50 mm D. 100 mm |
| The fundamental factor in the selection of pavement type is_____________? |
| A. climatic condition B. type and intensity of traffic C. subgrade soil and drainage conditions D. availability of funds for the construction project |
| Maximum daily traffic capacity of bituminous pavements is______________? |
| A. 500 tonnes per day B. 1000 tonnes per day C. 1500 tonnes per day D. 2000 tonnes per day |
| The aggregates required for one kilometer length of water bound macadam road per meter width and for 10 mm thickness is________________? |
| A. 8 cubic meter B. 10 cubic meter C. 12 cubic meter D. 15 cubic meter |
| The binder normally used in flexible pavement construction is________________? |
| A. cement B. lime C. bitumen D. none of the above |
| For the construction of water bound macadam roads, the correct sequence of operations after spreading coarse aggregates is________________? |
| A. dry rolling, wet rolling, application of screening and application of filler B. dry rolling, application of filler, wet rolling and application of screening C. dry rolling, application of screening, wet rolling and application of filler D. dry rolling, application of screening, application of filler and wet rolling |
| When the bituminous surfacing is done on already existing black top road or over existing cement concrete road, the type of treatment to be given is________________? |
| A. seal coat B. tack coat C. prime coat D. spray of emulsion |
| The most suitable equipment for compacting clayey soils is a_______________? |
| A. smooth wheeled roller B. pneumatic tyred roller C. sheep foot roller D. vibrator |
| Most suitable material for highway embankments is______________? |
| A. granular soil B. organic soil C. silts D. clays |
| The camber of shoulders in water bound macadam roads is________________? |
| A. equal to the cross slope of pavement B. less than the cross slope of pavement C. greater than the cross slope of pavement D. zero |
| In highway construction, rolling starts from________________? |
| A. sides and proceed to centre B. centre and proceed to sides C. one side and proceed to other side D. any of the above |
| In the penetration macadam construction, the bitumen is__________________? |
| A. sprayed after the aggregates are spread and compacted B. premixed with aggregates and then spread C. sprayed before the aggregates are spread and compacted D. none of the above |
| Which of the following premix methods is used for base course ? |
| A. bituminous carpet B. mastic asphalt C. sheet asphalt D. bituminous bound macadam |
| The suitable surfacing material for a bridge deck slab is________________? |
| A. sheet asphalt B. bituminous carpet C. mastic asphalt D. rolled asphalt |
| The thickness of bituminous carpet varies from__________________? |
| A. 20 to 25 mm B. 50 to 75 mm C. 75 to 100 mm D. 100 to 120 mm |
| Select the correct statement________________? |
| A. Quantity of binder required for tack coat is less than that required for prime coat B. Prime coat treatment is given for plugging the voids in water bound macadam during bituminous road construction C. Seal coat is the final coat over certain previous bituminous pavements D. A bitumen primer is a high viscosity cutback |
| Which of the following is considered to be the highest quality construction in the group of black top pavements ? |
| A. mastic asphalt B. sheet asphalt C. bituminous carpet D. bituminous concrete |
| Which of the following represents a carpet of sand-bitumen mix without coarse aggregates ? |
| A. mastic asphalt B. sheet asphalt C. bituminous carpet D. bituminous concrete |
| The drain which is provided parallel to roadway to intercept and divert the water from hill slopes is known as_______________? |
| A. sloping drain B. catchwater drain C. side drain D. cross drain |
| In hill roads the side drains arc provided________________? |
| A. only on the hill side of road B. only on the opposite side of hill C. on both sides of road D. none of the above |
| The minimum design speed for hairpin bends in hill roads is taken as_______________? |
| A. 20 kmph B. 30 kmph C. 40 kmph D. 50 kmph |
| In highway construction on super elevated curves, the rolling shall proceed from_________________? |
| A. sides towards the centre B. centre towards the sides C. lower edge towards the upper edge D. upper edge towards the lower edge |
| The camber for hill roads in case of bituminous surfacing is adopted as________________? |
| A. 2% B. 2.5% C. 3% D. 4% |
| The correction for sag is_________________? |
| A. always additive B. always subtractive C. always zero D. sometimes additive and sometimes subtractive |
| Which of the following methods of offsets involves less measurement on the ground? |
| A. method of perpendicular offsets B. method of oblique offsets C. method of ties D. all involve equal measurement on the ground |
| The allowable length of an offset depends upon the______________? |
| A. degree of accuracy required B. method of setting out the perpendiculars and nature of ground C. scale of plotting D. all of the above |
| For a well-conditioned triangle, no angle should be less than______________? |
| A. 20° B. 30° C. 45° D. 60° |
| During chaining along a straight line, the . leader of the party has 4 arrows in his hand while the follower has 6. Distance of the follower from the starting point is_____________? |
| A. 4 chains B. 6 chains C. 120 m D. 180m |
| The angle of intersection of the two plane mirrors of an optical square is______________? |
| A. 30° B. 45° C. 60° D. 90° |
| Which of the following angles can be set out with the help of French cross staff? |
| A. 45° only B. 90° only C. either 45° or 90° D. any angle |
| The permissible error in chaining for measurement with chain on rough or hilly ground is_____________? |
| A. 1 in 100 B. 1 in 250 C. 1 in 500 D. 1 in 1000 |
| Normal tension is that pull which_______________? |
| A. is used at the time of standardising the tape B. neutralizes the effect due to pull and sag C. makes the correction due to sag equal to zero D. makes the correction due to pull equal to zero |
| If the length of a chain is found to be short on testing, it can be adjusted by______________? |
| A. straightening the links B. removing one or more small circular rings C. closing the joints of the rings if opened out D. all of the above |
| Cross staff is an instrument used for________________? |
| A. measuring approximate horizontal angles B. setting out right angles C. measuring bearings of the lines D. none of the above |
| Which of the following is not used in measuring perpendicular offsets ? |
| A. line ranger B. steel tape C. optical square D. cross staff |
| For a line AB_______________? |
| A. the forebearing of AB and back bearing of AB differ by 180° B. the forebearing of AB and back bearing of BA differ by 180° C. both (A. and (B. are correct. D. none is correct |
| If the true bearing of a line AB is 269° 30′, then the azimuth of the line AB is_____________? |
| A. 0° 30′ B. 89° 30′ C. 90° 30′ D. 269° 30′ |
| The length of a chain is measured from_______________? |
| A. centre of one handle to centre of other handle B. outside of one handle to outside of other handle C. outside of one handle to inside of other handle D. inside of one handle to inside of other handle |
| The maximum tolerance in a 20 m chain is_______________? |
| A. ±2 mm B. ±3 mm C. ±5 mm D. ±8 mm |
| Select the incorrect statement? |
| A. The true meridians at different places are parallel to each other B. The true meridian at any place is not variable C. The true meridians converge to a point in northern and southern hemispheres D. The maps prepared by national survey departments of any country are based on true meridians |
| For accurate work, the steel band should always be used in preference to chain because the steel band______________? |
| A. is lighter than chain B. is easier to handle C. is practically inextensible and is not liable to kinks when in use D. can be easily repaired in the field |
| In the prismatic compass______________? |
| A. the magnetic needle moves with the box B. the line of the sight does not move with the box C. the magnetic needle and graduated circle do not move with the box D. the graduated circle is fixed to the box and the magnetic needle always remains in the N-S direction |
| In the quadrantal bearing system, a whole circle bearing of 293° 30′ can be expressed as______________? |
| A. W23°30’N B. N66°30’W C. S113°30’N D. N23°30’W |
| The horizontal angle between the true meridian and magnetic meridian at a place is called______________? |
| A. azimuth B. declination C. local attraction D. magnetic bearing |
| Local attraction in compass surveying may exist due to________________? |
| A. incorrect levelling of the magnetic needle B. loss of magnetism of the needle C. friction of the needle at the pivot D. presence of magnetic substances near the instrument |
| The prismatic compass and surveyor’s compass________________? |
| A. give whole circle bearing (WCB. of a line and quadrantal bearing (QB. of a line respectively B. both give QB of a line and WCB of a line C. both give QB of a line D. both give WCB of a line |
| A negative declination shows that the magnetic meridian is to the________________? |
| A. eastern side of the true meridian B. western side of the true meridian C. southern side of the true meridian D. none of the above |
| Agate cap is fitted with a_________________? |
| A. cross staff B. level C. chain D. prismatic compass |
| If the magnetic bearing of the sun at a place at noon in southern hemisphere is 167°, the magnetic declination at that place is________________? |
| A. 77° N B. 23° S C. 13° E D. 13° W |
| The graduations in prismatic compass_____________? |
| 1. are inverted 2. are upright 3. run clockwise having 0° at south 4. run clockwise having 0° at north The correct answer is ? A. (1) and (3) B. (1) and (4) C. (2) and (3) D. (2) and (4) |
| The process of turning the telescope about the vertical axis in horizontal plane is known as______________? |
| A. transiting B. reversing C. plunging D. swinging |
| Which of the following is not the function of levelling head ? |
| A. to support the main part of the instrument B. to attach the theodolite to the tripod C. to provide a means for leveling the theodolite D. none of the above |
| A telescope is said to be inverted if its______________? |
| A. vertical circle is to its right and the bubble of the telescope is down B. vertical circle is to its right and the bubble of the telescope is up C. vertical circle is to its left and the bubble of the telescope is down D. vertical circle is to its left and the bubble of the telescope is up |
| Size of a theodolite is specified by________________? |
| A. the length of telescope B. the diameter of vertical circle C. the diameter of lower plate D. the diameter of upper plate |
| If the lower clamp screw is tightened and upper clamp screw is loosened, the theodolite may be rotated____________? |
| A. on its outer spindle with a relative motion between the vernier and graduated scale of lower plate B. on its outer spindle without a relative motion between the vernier and gra-duated scale of lower plate C. on its inner spindle with a relative motion between the vernier and the graduated scale of lower plate D. on its inner spindle without a relative motion between the vernier and the graduated scale of lower plate |
| For which of the following permanent adjustments of theodolite, the spire test is used ? |
| A. adjustment of plate levels B. adjustment of line of sight C. adjustment of horizontal axis D. adjustment of altitude bubble and vertical index frame |
| Which of the following errors is not eliminated by the method of repetition of horizontal angle measurement ? |
| A. error due to eccentricity of verniers B. error due to displacement of station signals C. error due to wrong adjustment of line of collimation and trunnion axis D. error due to inaccurate graduation |
| The cross hairs in the surveying telescope are placed_____________? |
| A. midway between eye piece and objec¬tive lens B. much closer to the eye-piece than to the objective lens C. much closer to the objective lens than to the eye piece D. anywhere between eye-piece and objective lens |
| The adjustment of horizontal cross hair is required particularly when the instrument is used for_____________? |
| A. leveling B. prolonging a straight line C. measurement of horizontal angles D. all of the above |
| The error due to eccentricity of inner and outer axes can be eliminated by________________? |
| A. reading both verniers and taking the mean of the two B. taking both face observations and taking the mean of the two C. double sighting D. taking mean of several readings distributed over different portions of the graduated circle |
| In an internal focussing type of telescope, the lens provided is_______________? |
| A. concave B. convex C. plano-convex D. plano-concave |
| The rise and fall method of levelling provides a complete check on_______________? |
| A. backsight B. intermediate sight C. foresight D. all of the above |
| A’level line’is a______________? |
| A. horizontal line B. line parallel to the mean spheriodal surface of earth C. line passing through the center of cross hairs and the center of eye piece D. line passing through the objective lens and the eye-piece of a dumpy or tilting level |
| If a tripod settles in the interval that elapses between taking a back sight reading and the following foresight reading, then the elevation of turning point will_________________? |
| A. increase B. decrease C. not change D. either ‘a’ or ‘b’ |
| In the double application of principle of reversion, the apparent error is_______________? |
| A. equal to true error B. half the true error C. two times the true error D. four times the true error |
| Which of the following errors cannot be eliminated by taking both face observations ? |
| A. error due to horizontal axis not being perpendicular to the vertical axis B. index error i.e. error due to imperfect adjustment of the vertical circle vernier C. error due to non-parallelism of the axis of telescope level and line of collimation D. none of the above |
| Theodolite is an instrument used for_________________? |
| A. tightening the capstan-headed nuts of level tube B. measurement of horizontal angles only C. measurement of vertical angles only D. measurement of both horizontal and vertical angles |
| If altitude bubble is provided both on index frame as well as on telescope of a theodolite, then the instrument is levelled with reference to_________________? |
| 1. altitude bubble on index frame 2. altitude bubble on index frame if it is to be used as a level 3. altitude bubble on telescope 4. altitude bubble on telescope if it is to be used as a level The correct answer is? |
| A. only (1) B. both (1) and (4) C. only (3) D. both (2) and (3) |
| Which of the following errors can be eliminated by taking mean of bot face observations ? |
| A. error due to imperfect graduations B. error due to eccentricity of verniers C. error due to imperfect adjustment of plate levels D. error due to line of collimation not being perpendicular to horizontal axis |
| The following sights are taken on a “turning point”________________? |
| A. foresight only B. backsight only C. foresight and backsight D. foresight and intermediate sight |
| If the R.L. of a B.M. is 100.00 m, the back- sight is 1.215 m and the foresight is 1.870 m, the R.L. of the forward station is_________________? |
| A. 99.345 m B. 100.345 m C. 100.655m D. 101.870m |
| As applied to staff readings, the corrections for curvature and refraction are respectively The above table shows a part of a level field book. The value of X should be________________? |
| A. 98.70 B. 100.00 C. 102.30 D. 103.30 |
| Refraction correction________________? |
| A. completely eliminates curvature correction B. partially eliminates curvature correction C. adds to the curvature correction D. has no effect on curvature correction |
| The sensitivity of a bubble tube can be increased by________________? |
| A. increasing the diameter of the tube B. decreasing the length of bubble C. increasing the viscosity of liquid D. decreasing the radius of curvature of tube |
| If the staff is not held vertical at a level¬ling station, the reduced level calculated from the observation would be_______________? |
| A. true R.L B. more than true R.L C. less than true R.L D. none of the above |
| Which of the following errors can be neutralised by setting the level midway between the two stations ? |
| A. error due to curvature only B. error due to refraction only C. error due to both curvature and re-fraction D. none of the above |
| The rise and fall method_______________? |
| A. is less.accurate than height of instrument method B. is not suitable for levelling with tilting levels C. provides a check on the reduction of intermediate point levels D. quicker and less tedious for large number of intermediate sights |
| The difference between a level line and a horizontal line is that_______________? |
| A. level line is a curved line while hori-zontal line is a straight line B. level line is normal to plumb line while horizontal line may not be normal to plumb line at the tangent point to level line C. horizontal line is normal to plumb line while level line may not be normal to the plumb line D. both are same |
| With the rise of temperature, the sensitivity of a bubble tube______________? |
| A. decreases B. increases C. remains unaffected D. none of the above |
| The R.L, of the point A which is on the floor is 100 m and back sight reading on A is 2.455 m. If the foresight reading on the point B which is on the ceiling is 2.745 m, the R.L. of point B will be_______________? |
| A. 94.80 m B. 99.71 m C. 100.29 m D. 105.20 m |
| If the horizontal distance between the staff point and the point of observation is d, then the error due to curvature of earth is proportional to_______________? |
| A. d B. 1/d C. d2 D. 1/d2 |
| The suitable contour interval for a map with scale 1 : 10000 is______________? |
| A. 2 m B. 5m C. 10 m D. 20 m |
| Contour interval is_______________? |
| A. inversely proportional to the scale of the map B. directly proportional to the flatness of ground C. larger for accurate works D. larger if the time available is more |
| Dumpy level is most suitable when______________? |
| A. the instrument is to be shifted frequently B. fly levelling is being done over long distance C. many readings are to be taken from a single setting of the instrument D. all of the above |
| Sensitiveness of a level tube is designated by______________? |
| A. radius of level tube B. length of level tube C. length of bubble of level tube D. none of the above |
| The difference of levels between two stations A and B is to be determined. For best results, the instrument station should be_______________? |
| A. equidistant from A and B B. closer to the higher station C. closer to the lower station D. as far as possible from the line AB |
| An imaginary line lying throughout the surface of ground and preserving a constant inclination to the horizontal is known as__________________? |
| A. contour line B. horizontal equivalent C. contour interval D. contour gradient |
| Select the correct statement_______________? |
| A. A contour is not necessarily a closed curve B. A contour represents a ridge line if the concave side of lower value con¬tour lies towards the higher value contour C. Two contours of different elevations do not cross each other except in case of an overhanging cliff D. All of the above statements are correct |
| In direct method of contouring, the process of locating or identifying points lying on a contour is called_______________? |
| A. ranging B. centring C. horizontal control D. vertical control |
| Which of the following methods of con-touring is most suitable for a hilly terrain ? |
| A. direct method B. square method C. cross-sections method D. tacheometric method |
| Direct method of contouring is_________________? |
| A. a quick method B. adopted for large surveys only C. most accurate method D. suitable for hilly terrains |
| Closed contours, with higher value inwards, represent a_______________? |
| A. depression B. hillock C. plain surface D. none of the above |
| A series of closely spaced contour lines represents a___________________? |
| A. steep slope B. gentle slope C. uniform slope D. plane surface |
| Benchmark is established by________________? |
| A. hypsometry B. barometric levelling C. spirit levelling D. trigonometrical levelling |
| Intersection method of detailed plotting is most suitable for________________? |
| A. forests B. urban areas C. hilly areas D. plains |
| Three point problem can be solved by_________________? |
| A. Tracing paper method B. Bessels method C. Lehman’s method D. all of the above |
| The type of surveying which requires least office work is________________? |
| A. tacheomefry B. trigonometrical levelling C. plane table surveying D. theodolite surveying |
| Detailed plotting is generally done by________________? |
| A. radiation B. traversing C. resection D. all of the above |
| The size of a plane table is________________? |
| A. 750 mm x 900 mm B. 600 mm x 750 mm C. 450 mm x 600 mm D. 300 mm x 450 mm |
| The two point problem and three point problem are methods of________________? |
| A. resection B. orientation C. traversing D. resection and orientation |
| The process of determining the locations of the instrument station by drawing re sectors from the locations of the known stations is called_________________? |
| A. radiation B. intersection C. resection D. traversing |
| Bowditch rule is applied to_________________? |
| A. an open traverse for graphical adjustment B. a closed traverse for adjustment of closing error C. determine the effect of local attraction D. none of the above |
| If the reduced bearing of a line AB is N60°W and length is 100 m, then the latitude and departure respectively of the line AB will be________________? |
| A. +50 m, +86.6 m B. +86.6 m, -50 m C. +50m, -86.6 m D. +70.7 m,-50 m |
| Which of the following methods of plane table surveying is used to locate the position of an inaccessible point ? |
| A. radiation B. intersection C. traversing D. resection |
| Select the correct statement? |
| A. Contour interval on any map is kept constant B. Direct method of contouring is cheap¬er than indirect method C. Inter-visibility of points on a contour map cannot be ascertained D. Slope of a hill cannot be determined with the help of contours |
| The instrument used for accurate centering in plane table survey is________________? |
| A. spirit level B. alidade C. plumbing fork D. trough compass |
| The resection by two point problem as compared to three point problem_______________? |
| A. gives more accurate problem B. takes less time C. requires more labour D. none of the above |
| If in a closed traverse, the sum of the north latitudes is more than the sum of the south latitudes and also the sum of west departures is more than the sum of the east departures, the bearing of the closing line is in the________________? |
| A. NE quadrant B. SE quadrant C. NW quadrant D. SW quadrant |
| Transit rule of adjusting the consecutive coordinates of a traverse is used where________________? |
| A. linear and angular measurements of the traverse are of equal accuracy B. angular measurements are more accurate than linear measurements C. linear measurements are more accurate than angular measurements D. all of the above |
| Horizontal distances obtained by thermometric observations_________________? |
| A. require slope correction B. require tension correction C. require slope and tension corrections D. do not require slope and tension corrections |
| Which of the following methods of theodolite traversing is suitable for locating the details which are far away from transit stations ? |
| A. measuring angle and distance from one transit station B. measuring angles to the point from at least two stations C. measuring angle at one station and distance from other D. measuring distance from two points on traverse line |
| The number of horizontal cross wires in a stadia diaphragm is ________________? |
| A. one B. two C. three D. four |
| For a tacheometer the additive and multi-plying constants are respectively________________? |
| A. 0 and 100 B. 100 and 0 C. 0 and 0 D. 100 and 100 |
| Different grades are joined together by a ________________? |
| A. compound curve B. transition curve C. reverse curve D. vertical curve |
| If the focal length of the object glass is 25 cm and the distance from object glass to the trunnion axis is 15 cm, the additive constant is_______________? |
| A. 0.1 B. 0.4 C. 0.6 D. 1.33 |
| If the intercept on a vertical staff is ob-served as 0.75 m from a tacheometer, the horizontal distance between tacheometer and staff station is________________? |
| A. 7.5 m B. 25 m C. 50 D. 75 m |
| Overturning of vehicles on a curve can be avoided by using ________________? |
| A. compound curve B. vertical curve C. reverse curve D. transition curve |
| Subtense bar is an instrument used for _______________? |
| A. levelling B. measurement of horizontal distances in plane areas C. measurement of horizontal distances in undulated areas D. measurement of angles |
| The angle between the prolongation of the preceding line and the forward line of a traverse is called ________________? |
| A. deflection angle B. included angle C. direct angle D. none of the above |
| After fixing the plane table to the tripod, the main operations which are needed at each plane table station are ______________ ? |
| 1. levelling 2. orientation 3. centering The correct sequence of these operations is |
| A. (1), (2),(3) B. (1), (3), (2) C. (3), (1), (2) D. (2), (3), (1) |
| The methods used for locating the plane table stations are_______________? |
| 1. radiation 2. traversing 3.intersection 4. resection The correct answer is |
| A. (1) and (2) B. (3) and (4) C. (2) and (4) D. (1) and (3) |
| In the cross-section method of indirect contouring, the spacing of cross-sections depends upon_____________? |
| 1. contour interval 2. scale of plan 3. characteristics of ground The correct answer is ? |
| A. only (1) B. (1) and (2) C. (2) and (3) D. (1), (2) and (3) |
| A metallic tape is made of ______________ ? |
| A. steel B. invar C. linen D. cloth and wires |
| The property of the ingredients to separate from each other while placing the concrete is called____________? |
| A. segregation B. compaction C. shrinkage D. bulking |
| Approximate value of shrinkage strain in concrete, is________________? |
| A. 0.003 B. 0.0003 C. 0.00003 D. 0.03 |
| Workability of concrete is directly proportional to________________? |
| A. aggregate cement ratio B. time of transit C. grading of the aggregate D. all of above |
| The relation between modulus of rupture fcr, splitting strength fcs and direct tensile strength fcl is given by_______________? |
| A. tcr – rcs = tct B. fcr>fcs>fc C. fcr<fcs D. fc5>fcr>fC |
| Strength of concrete increases with________________? |
| A. increase in water-cement ratio B. increase in fineness of cement C. decrease in curing time D. decrease in size of aggregate |
| As compared to ordinary portland cement, use of pozzuolanic cement_______________? |
| A. reduces workability B. increases bleeding C. increases shrinkage D. increases strength |
| According to IS : 456 -1978, the modulus of elasticity of concrete Ec (in N/mm2) can be taken as______________? |
| A. Ec = = 5700 B. Ec = = 570 C. Ec = = 5700fck D. Ec = where fck N/mm2 = 700 is the characteristic strength in |
| The most commonly used admixture which prolongs the setting and hardening time is_______________? |
| A. gypsum B. calcium chloride C. sodium silicate D. all of the above |
| The strength of concrete after one year as compared to 28 days strength is about_______________? |
| A. 10 to 15% more B. 15 to 20% more C. 20 to 25% more D. 25 to 50% more |
| Admixtures which cause early setting, and hardening of concrete are called_______________? |
| A. workability admixtures B. accelerators C. retarders D. air entraining agents |
| Increase in the moisture content in concrete_________________? |
| A. reduces the strength B. increases the strength C. does not change the strength D. all of the above |
| The relation between modulus of rupturefcr and characteristic strength of concrete fck is given by_______________? |
| A. fcr=0.35Vf7 B. fcr=0.57f7 C. fcr=0.7Vf7 D. fcr=1.2Vf7 where fcr and fck are in N/mm2′ |
| The approximate value of the ratio between direct tensile strength and flexural strength is_____________? |
| A. 0.33 B. 0.5 C. 0.75 D. 1.0 |
| Air entrainment in the concrete increases________________? |
| A. workability B. strength C. the effects of temperature variations D. the unit weight |
| Workability of concrete is inversely pro¬portional to______________? |
| A. time of transit B. ‘vater-cement ratio C. the air in the mix D. size of aggregate |
| The property of fresh concrete, in which the water in the mix tends to rise to the surface while placing and compacting, is called________________? |
| A. segregation B. bleeding C. bulking D. creep |
| To determine the modulus of rupture, the size of test specimen used is_______________? |
| A. 150 x150 x500 mm B. 100 x100 x700 mm C. 150 x150 x700 mm D. 100 x100 x500 mm |
| The percentage of voids in cement is approximately_______________? |
| A. 25% B. 40% C. 60% D. 80% |
| Modulus of rupture of concrete is a measure of_______________? |
| A. flexural tensile strength B. direct tensile strength C. compressive strength D. split tensile strength |
| In order to obtain the best workability of concrete, the preferred shape of aggregate is_______________? |
| A. rounded B. elongated C. angular D. all of the above |
| As compared to ordinary portland cement, high alumina cement has______________? |
| A. higher initial setting time but lower final setting time B. lower initial setting time but higher final setting time C. higher initial and final setting times D. lower initial and final setting times |
| Bulking of sand is maximum if moisture content is about____________? |
| A. 2 % B. 4% C. 6% D. 10% |
| 1% of voids in a concrete mix would reduce its strength by about______________? |
| A. 5% B. 10 % C. 15% D. 20% |
| Finer grinding of cement______________? |
| A. affects only the early development of strength B. affects only the ultimate strength C. both (A. and (B. D. does not affect the strength |
| Poisson’s ratio for concrete_______________? |
| A. remains constant B. increases with richer mixes C. decreases with richer mixes D. none of the above |
| The factor of safety for______________? |
| A. steel and concrete are same B. steel is lower than that for concrete C. steel is higher than that for concrete D. none of the above |
| The fineness modulus of fine aggregate is in the range of______________? |
| A. 2.0 to 3.5 B. 3.5 to 5.0 C. 5.0 to 7.0 D. 6.0 to 8.5 |
| The compressive strength of 100 mm cube as compared to 150 mm cube is always_______________? |
| A. less B. more C. equal D. none of the above |
| If a beam fails in bond, then its bond strength can be increased most economi-cally by___________? |
| A. increasing the depth of beam B. using thinner bars but more in number C. using thicker bars but less in number D. providing vertical stirrups |
| If the depth of actual neutral axis in a beam is more than the depth of critical neutral axis, then the beam is called________________? |
| A. balanced beam B. under-reinforced beam C. over-reinforced beam D. none of the above |
| If the permissible stress in steel in tension is 140 N/mm2, then the depth of neutral axis for a singly reinforced rectangular balanced section will be___________________? |
| A. 0.35 d B. 0.40 d C. 0.45 d D. dependent on grade of concrete also |
| Minimum grade of concrete to be used in reinforced concrete as per IS:456-1978 is_____________? |
| A. M15 B. M20 C. M 10 D. M25 |
| Maximum quantity of water needed per 50 kg of cement for M 15 grade of concrete is_______________? |
| A. 28 liters B. 30 liters C. 32 liters D. 34 liters |
| For concreting of heavily reinforced sections without vibration, the workability of concrete expressed as compacting factor should be________________? |
| A. 0.75-0.80 B. 0.80-0.85 C. 0.85 – 0.92 D. above 0.92 |
| In case of hand mixing of concrete, the extra cement to be added is__________________? |
| A. 5% B. 10% C. 15% D. 20% |
| The individual variation between test strength of sample should not be more than______________? |
| A. ±5% of average B. ± 10% of average C. ± 15% of average D. ±20% of average |
| For walls, columns and vertical faces of all structural members, the form work is generally removed after_______________? |
| A. 24 to 48 hours B. 3 days C. 7 days D. 14 days |
| For walls, columns and vertical faces of all structural members, the form work is generally removed after______________? |
| A. 24 to 48 hours B. 3 days C. 7 days D. 14 days |
| One of the criteria for the effecvve width of flange of T-beam is bf =—+ bw +6Df 6 In above formula, l0 signifies_______________? |
| A. effective span of T-beam B. distance between points of zero moments in the beam C. distance between points of maximum moments in the beam D. clear span of the T-beam |
| For a continuous slab of 3 m x 3.5 m size, the minimum overall depth of slab to satisfy vertical deflection limits is__________________? |
| A. 50 mm B. 75 mm C. 100 mm D. 120 mm |
| For a cantilever of effective depth of 0.5m, the maximum span to satisfy vertical deflection limit is______________? |
| A. 3.5 m B. 4 m C. 4.5 m D. 5 m |
| Diagonal tension in a beam______________? |
| A. is maximum at neutral axis B. decreases below the neutral axis and increases above the neutral axis C. increases below the neutral axis and decreases above the neutral axis D. remains same |
| According to IS : 456-1978, the cblumn or the strut is the member whose effective length is greater than________________? |
| A. the least lateral dimension B. 2 times the least lateral dimension C. 3 times the least lateral dimension D. 4 times the least lateral dimension |
| For a simply supported beam of span 15m, the minimum effective depth to satisfy the vertical deflection limits should be________________? |
| A. 600 mm B. 750 mm C. 900 mm D. more than 1 m |
| According to IS : 456- 1978, minimum slenderness ratio for a short column is_______________? |
| A. less than 12 B. less than 18 C. between 18 and 24 D. more than 24 |
| The minimum cover in a slab should neither be less than the diameter of bar nor less than_______________? |
| A. 10 mm B. 15 mm C. 25 mm D. 13 mm |
| The ratio of the diameter of reinforcing bars and the slab thickness is_______________? |
| A. 1/4 B. 1/5 C. 1/6 D. 1/8 |
| The percentage of reinforcement in case of slabs, when high strength deformed bars are used is not less than________________? |
| A. 0.15 B. 0.12 C. 0.30 D. 1.00 |
| For a longitudinal reinforcing bar in a column, the minimum cover shall neither be less than the diameter of bar nor less than_______________? |
| A. 15 mm B. 25 mm C. 30 mm D. 40 mm |
| Lap length in compression shall not be less than______________? |
| A. 15 4> B. 20 C. 24 (j) D. 30 (j) |
| where (j) is diameter of bar |
| According to IS : 456-1978, the fiexural strength of concrete is________________? |
| A. directly proportional to compressive strength B. inversely proportional to compressive strength C. directly proportional to square root of compressive strength D. inversely proportional to square root of compressive strength |
| According to IS: 456-1978, the maximum reinforcement in a column is_____________? |
| A. 2 % B. 4% C. 6 % D. 8 % |
| Which of the following statements is incorrect ? |
| A. Minimum cross sectional area of longitudinal reinforcement in a column is 0.8% B. Spacing of longitudinal bars measured along the periphery of column should not exceed 300 mm C. Reinforcing bars in a column should not be less than 12 mm in diameter D. The number of longitudinal bars provided in a circular column should not be less than four |
| Minimum pitch of transverse reinforcement in a column is________________? |
| A. the least lateral dimension of the member B. sixteen times the smallest diameter of longitudinal reinforcement bar to be tied C. forty-eight times the diameter of transverse reinforcement D. lesser of the above three values |
| A continuous beam is deemed to be a deep beam when the ratio of effective span to overall depth (1/D. is less than__________________? |
| A. 1.5 B. 2.0 C. 2.5 D. 3.0 |
| Minimum thickness of load bearing RCC wall should be_____________? |
| A. 50 mm B. 100 mm C. 150 mm D. 200 mm |
| In reinforced concrete footing on soil, the minimum thickness at edge should not be less than______________? |
| A. 100 mm B. 150 mm C. 200 mm D. 250 mm |
| The slab is designed as one way if the ratio of long span to short span is_____________? |
| A. less than 1 B. between 1 and 1.5 C. between 1.5 and 2 D. greater than 2 |
| If the storey height is equal to length of RCC wall, the percentage increase in strength is_____________? |
| A. 0 B. 10 C. 20 D. 30 |
| Critical section for shear in case of flat slabs is at a distance of_______________? |
| A. effective depth of slab from periphery of column/drop panel B. d/2 from periphery of column/capital/ drop panel C. at the drop panel of slab D. at the periphery of column |
| The average permissible stress in bond for plain bars in tension is_______________? |
| A. increased by 10% for bars in compression B. increased by 25% for bars in compression C. decreased by 10% for bars in compression D. decreased by 25% for bars in compression |
| Maximum distance between expansion joints in structures as per IS : 456 – 1978 is________________? |
| A. 20 m B. 30 m C. 45 m D. 60 m |
| A higher modular ratio shows____________? |
| A. higher compressive strength of con-crete B. lower compressive strength of concrete C. higher tensile strength of steel D. lower tensile strength of steel |
| Ratio of permissible stress in direct compression and bending compression is______________? |
| A. less than 1 B. between 1 and 1.5 C. between 1.5 and 2.0 D. greater than 2 |
| In working stress design, permissible bond stress in the case of deformed bars is more than that in plain bars by_______________? |
| A. 10% B. 20% C. 30% D. 40% |
| Half of the main steel in a simply supported slab is bent up near the support at a distance of x from the center of slab bearing where x is equal to________________? |
| A. 1/3 B. 1/5 C. 1/7 D. 1/10 where 1 is the span |
| If the size of panel in a flat slab is 6m x 6m, then as per Indian Standard Code, the widths of column strip and middle strip are__________________? |
| A. 3.0 m and 1.5 m B. 1.5 m and 3.0 m C. 3.0 m and 3.0 m D. 1.5 m and 1.5 m |
| The permissible diagonal tensile stress in reinforced brick work is_____________? |
| A. about 0.1 N/mm2 B. zero C. 0.3 N/mm2 to 0.7 N/mm2 D. about 1.0 N/mm2 |
| When shear stress exceeds the permissible limit in a slab, then it is reduced by____________? |
| A. increasing the depth B. providing shear reinforcement C. using high strength steel D. using thinner bars but more in number |
| The main reason for providing number of reinforcing bars at a support in a simply supported beam is to resist in that zone_________________? |
| A. compressive stress B. shear stress C. bond stress D. tensile stress |
| The limits of percentage p of the longitudinal reinforce-ment in a column is given by_____________? |
| A. 0.15% to 2% B. 0.8% to 4% C. 0.8% to 6% D. 0.8% to 8% |
| The minimum cover to the ties or spirals should not be less than________________? |
| A. 15 mm B. 20 mm C. 25 mm D. 50mm |
| Maximum percentage reinforcement in case of slabs is limited to___________________? |
| A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 |
| The diameter of ties in a column should be_______________? |
| A. more than or equal to one fourth of diameter of main bar B. more than or equal to 5 mm C. more than 5 mm but less than one-fourth of diameter of main bar D. more than 5 mm and also more than one-fourth of diameter of main bar |
| The minimum diameter of longitudinal bars in a column is________________? |
| A. 6 mm B. 8 mm C. 12 mm D. 16 mm |
| For the design of retaining walls, the minimum factor of safety against overturning is taken as_____________? |
| A. 1.5 B. 2.0 C. 2.5 D. 3.0 |
| The load carrying capacity of a helically reinforced column as compared to that of a tied column is about________________? |
| A. 5% less B. 10% less C. 5% more D. 10% more |
| Due to circumferential action of the spiral in a spirally reinforced column________________? |
| A. capacity of column is decreased B. ductility of column reduces C. capacity of column is decreased but ductility of column increases D. both the capacity of column and ductility of column increase |
| Which of the following R.C. retaining walls is suitable for heights beyond 6m ? |
| A. L-shaped wall B. T-shaped wall C. counterfort type D. all of the above |
| The temperature reinforcement in the vertical slab of a T-shaped R.C. retaining wall is______________? |
| A. not needed B. provided equally on inner and front faces C. provided more on inner face than on front face D. provided more on front face than on inner face |
| For a slab supported on its four edges with corners held down and loaded uniformly, the Marcus correction factor to the moments obtained by Grashoff Rankine’s theory_______________? |
| A. is always less than 1 B. is always greater than 1 C. can be more than 1 D. can be less than 1 |
| Modulus of elasticity of steel as per IS : 456-1978 shall be taken as______________? |
| A. 20 kN/cm2 B. 200 kN/cm2 C. 200kN/mm2 D. 2xl06N/cm2 |
| If the depth of neutral axis for a singly reinforced rectangular section is represented by kd in working stress design, then the value of k for balanced section_______________? |
| A. depends on as, only B. depends on aCbC only C. depends on both crst and acbc D. is independant of both ast and acbc where d is the effective depth, ast is per-missible stress in steel in tension and ocbc is permissible stress in concrete in bend¬ing compression |
| If nominal shear stress tv exceeds the design shear strength of concrete xc, the nominal shear reinforcement as per IS : 456-1978 shall be provided for carrying a shear stress equal to__________________? |
| A. xv B. xc C. xv – TC D. Tv + Tc |
| For a reinforced concrete section, the shape of shear stress diagram is_______________? |
| A. wholly parabolic B. wholly rectangular C. parabolic above neutral axis and rectangular below neutral axis D. rectangular above neutral axis and parabolic below neutral axis |
| The main reinforcement in the heel of a T-shaped R.C. retaining wall is provided on______________? |
| A. top face perpendicular to wall B. bottom face perpendicular to wall C. both top and bottom faces perpendicular to wall D. none of the above |
| In counterfort retaining walls, the main reinforcement in the stem at support is_______________? |
| A. not provided B. provided only on inner face C. provided only on front face D. provided both on inner and front faces |
| In a counterfort retaining wall, the main reinforcement in the stem at mid span is provided on_______________? |
| A. front face only B. inner face only C. both front face and inner face D. none of the above |
| A T-shaped retaining wall mainly conssits of_________________? |
| A. one cantilever B. two cantilevers C. three cantilevers D. four cantilevers |
| To minimise the effect of differential settlement, the area of a footing should be designed for______________? |
| A. dead load only B. dead load + live load C. dead load + fraction of live load D. live load + fraction of dead load |
| In a pile of length /, the points of suspension from ends for lifting it are located at______________? |
| A. 0.207 1 B. 0.25 / C. 0.293 / D. 0.333 / |
| While designing the pile as a column, the end conditions are nearly_______________? |
| A. both ends hinged B. both ends fixed C. one end fixed and other end hinged D. one end fixed and other end free |
| The critical section for finding maximum bending moment for footing under masonry wall is located_______________? |
| A. at the middle of the wall B. at the edge of the wall C. halfway between the middle and edge of the wall D. at a distance equal to effective depth of footing from the edge of the wall |
| If the foundations of all the columns of a structure are designed on the total live and dead load basis, then_________________? |
| A. there will be no settlement of columns B. there will be no differential settlement C. the settlement of exterior columns will be more than interior columns D. the settlement of interior columns will be more than exterior columns |
| During erection, the pile of length / is supported by a crane at a distance of________________? |
| A. 0.207 / B. 0.293 / C. 0.7071 D. 0.793 / |
| from the driving end of pile which rests on the ground |
| According to ISI recommendations, the maximum depth of stress block for balanced section of a beam of effective depth d is__________________? |
| A. 0.43 d B. 0.55 d C. 0.68 d D. 0.85 d |
| The centroid of compressive force, from the extreme compression fiber, in limit state design lies at a distance of__________________? |
| A. 0.367 xu B. 0.416 xu C. 0.446 xu D. 0.573 xu |
| where xu is the depth of neutral axis at the limit state of collapse |
| The load factors for live load and dead load are taken respectively as_________________? |
| A. 1.5 and 2.2 B. 2.2 and 1.5 C. 1.5 and 1.5 D. 2.2 and 2.2 |
| According to Whitney’s theory, ultimate strain of concrete is assumed to be_____________? |
| A. 0.03% B. 0.1% C. 0.3% D. 3% |
| Assertion A : The load factor for live load is greater than that for dead load. Reason R : The live loads are more uncertain than dead loads? |
| Select your answer based on the coding system given below : |
| A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. C. A is true but R is false. D. A is false but R is true. |
| The design yield stress of steel according to IS: 456-1978 is_______________? |
| A. 0.37 fy B. 0.57 fy C. 0.67 fy D. 0.87 fy |
| where fy is the characteristic yield strength of steel |
| According to Whitney’s theory, depth of stress block for a balanced section of a concrete beam is limited to_______________? |
| A. 0.43 d B. 0.537 d C. 0.68 d D. 0.85 d |
| where d is effective depth of beam[ES 2k] |
| As per Whitney’s theory, the maximum moment of resistance of the balanced section of a beam of width b and effective depth d is given by_______________? |
| A. ^acybd2 B. ^acybd2 C. 0.185acybd2 D. 0.43acybd2 where acy is the cylinder compressive strength of concrete |
| Due to shrinkage stresses, a simply supported beam having reinforcement only at bottom tends to_____________? |
| A. deflect downward B. deflect upward C. deflect downward or upward D. none of the above |
| A beam curved in plan is designed for_______________? |
| A. bending moment and shear B. bending moment and torsion C. shear and torsion D. bending moment, shear and torsion |
| In a spherical dome the hoop stress due to a concentrated load at crown is_______________? |
| A. compressive everywhere B. tensile everywhere C. partly compressive and partly tensile D. zero |
| In prestressed concrete______________? |
| A. forces of tension and compression change but lever arm remains unchanged B. forces of tension and compressions remain unchanged but lever arm changes with the moment C. both forces of tension and compres-sion as well as lever arm change D. both forces of tension and compres-sion as well as lever arm remain unchanged |
| Normally prestressing wires are arranged in the_______________? |
| A. upper part of the beam B. lower part of the beam C. center D. anywhere |
| Which of the following losses of prestress occurs only in pretensioning and not in post-tensioning ? |
| A. elastic shortening of concrete B. shrinkage of concrete C. creep of concrete D. loss due to friction |
| Which of the following has high tensile strength ? |
| A. plain hot rolled wires B. cold drawn wires C. heat treated rolled wires D. all have same tensile strength |
| Stress strain curve of high tensile steel_______________? |
| A. has a definite yield point B. does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 0.1% proof stress C. does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 0.2% proof stress D. does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 2% proof stress |
| Cube strength of controlled concrete to be used for pretensioned and post-tensioned work respectively should not be less than__________________? |
| A. 35 MPa and 42 MPa B. 42 MPa and 35 MPa C. 42 MPa and 53 MPa D. 53 MPa and 42 MPa |
| Ultimate strength of cold drawn high steel wires_______________? |
| A. increases with increase in diameter of bar B. decreases with increase in diameter of bar C. does not depend on diameter of bar D. none of the above |
